By El Mehdi Bouchti, PMP, PMI-ACP · Updated

  • 180 questions, 240 minutes, July 2026 domain weights
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Free PMP Practice Questions 2026 (No Signup Required)

Practice 126 multiple-choice PMP questions below, with the answer and explanation one click away. This collection brings together the public questions previously spread across our guides. It covers all three exam domains, People (33%), Process (41%) and Business Environment (26%), across predictive, agile and hybrid scenarios. No account required.

These original, hypothetical teaching examples are aligned to the July 2026 PMP Examination Content Outline. They are not official PMI answer keys.

How to use these questions

Each question presents a realistic PMP exam scenario. Try to select the best answer before clicking "Check answer" or opening the explanation. The explanation describes why the correct answer fits PMI practice and why the other options fall short.

  • Commit to an answer before you open the explanation
  • Read every explanation, including for questions you got right: the reasoning is what transfers to new questions
  • Note which topics you miss and drill them with the knowledge-area guides below
  • When ready, take a timed 180-question mock exam

Mixed PMP practice: 22 free questions

Try each scenario before opening the answer. Every explanation shows why the best choice fits PMI practice and why the other choices fall short.

Select an answer and check the reasoning. This untimed preview stays in this page session; it does not save an exam result or estimate your chance of passing.

  1. Question 1

    A developer who joined your remote team three weeks ago says almost nothing in daily stand-ups, and two of her tasks have slipped. Other team members have started working around her. What should you do FIRST?

    Choose an answer for question 1

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B. Meet with her privately to understand what is getting in the way of her work.

    People questions usually start with understanding before acting. A private conversation can uncover onboarding gaps, unclear expectations or blockers that the project manager can remove. Reassigning work or escalating acts before knowing the cause, and a reminder to the whole team does not address her situation.

  2. Question 2

    Your new team spans four countries. In the first month, misunderstandings about response times, meeting etiquette and decision rights have caused friction and some rework. Which action BEST addresses this?

    Choose an answer for question 2

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A. Facilitate the team in agreeing a team charter that covers norms and decision rights.

    A team charter, or working agreement, created by the team sets shared norms for communication, availability and decisions. Because the team writes it, members commit to it. Imposed rules get less buy-in, splitting the team by country weakens collaboration, and waiting leaves the rework to continue.

  3. Question 3

    On a Kanban board, the number of items in progress has doubled over two weeks, and average cycle time has risen from 4 days to 9 days. Throughput has not changed. What should the team do?

    Choose an answer for question 3

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C. Lower the work-in-progress limits and finish started items before pulling new ones.

    With steady throughput, more work in progress means each item waits longer, so cycle time grows (Little's Law). Lowering WIP limits and finishing work before starting more restores flow. Adding people treats the symptom, splitting cards changes the counting rather than the flow, and switching frameworks does not address the cause.

  4. Question 4

    Six months into a two-year project, a new data-protection regulation is announced. It takes effect before your planned go-live and affects how customer records are stored. What should you do FIRST?

    Choose an answer for question 4

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. Assess the regulation's impact on scope, schedule and compliance with the experts.

    Business environment questions expect you to assess the impact of external change with the right experts (legal, compliance, architecture) before acting. The assessment then feeds a change request and an updated compliance plan. Redesigning immediately skips analysis, waiting risks missing the deadline, and telling customers comes before any facts are known.

  5. Question 5

    Your project delivered a new customer portal, and the project is about to close. The business case promises a 20% drop in call-center volume within a year. Who should measure whether this benefit is achieved?

    Choose an answer for question 5

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A. The benefits owner named in the benefits management plan, after the project closes.

    Many benefits appear only after the project ends. The benefits management plan names an owner, usually in the business, who tracks and reports them over time. Keeping the project open to wait for benefits is wasteful, the team disbands at closure, and a vendor warranty covers defects, not business outcomes.

  6. Question 6

    Operations supervisors are openly resisting the new scheduling process your project is introducing. They say it was designed without them and will not work on night shifts. What is the BEST way to respond?

    Choose an answer for question 6

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B. Hold a workshop with the supervisors to hear their concerns and adapt the design.

    Resistance often signals a real gap: here, night-shift needs were missed. Involving the supervisors in adapting the design addresses the cause and builds ownership. A mandate forces compliance without fixing the design, training assumes the problem is understanding, and delay changes nothing.

  7. Question 7

    Your product backlog holds 120 story points of work for the next release. The team's velocity over the last four sprints was 22, 26, 23 and 25 points. The sponsor asks when the release will be ready. What is the BEST answer?

    Choose an answer for question 7

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B. About five sprints, shared as a forecast range that you update as velocity changes.

    Average velocity is 24 points, so 120 ÷ 24 = about five sprints. Agile forecasts are shared as ranges and updated as real velocity data arrives. Assuming the team will speed up is unsupported, padding hides real information, and agile teams do forecast; they just do not treat a forecast as a fixed promise.

  8. Question 8

    Your project team documented lessons learned only at the closing meeting on its last two projects, and few of them were ever reused. How should lessons learned be handled on your current project?

    Choose an answer for question 8

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C. Capture them throughout the project and apply them while work is still under way.

    Lessons learned are captured continuously and applied during the project, not only at the end. That is when they still change outcomes. The lessons learned register is updated throughout and transferred to organizational process assets at closure. Phase gates alone are too infrequent, and handing the job to the PMO removes the team's ownership.

  9. Question 9

    A high-performing developer asks to transfer to another project, saying she has no room to grow on yours. She owns two activities on the critical path. What should you do FIRST?

    Choose an answer for question 9

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. Meet with her to understand what growth she wants and whether the project can offer it.

    Start by understanding the person. Her concern may be solvable inside the project, for example through a stretch assignment, which keeps both her and the schedule. Declining or approving immediately skips that conversation, and going to her manager first goes around her and damages trust.

  10. Question 10

    Halfway through a retrospective, two senior developers start a heated argument about code-review standards. The rest of the team goes quiet. As the facilitator, what should you do?

    Choose an answer for question 10

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A. Name the tension, refocus on the topic, and restate the team's ground rules.

    A facilitator keeps the session safe and useful. Naming the tension and returning to agreed ground rules lets the discussion continue productively. Ending early leaves the conflict open, letting it run makes others unsafe to speak, and a vote creates winners and losers instead of agreement.

  11. Question 11

    Your sponsor has cancelled your weekly check-in three weeks in a row. When you do speak, she seems distracted and rushes through updates. A funding decision is due next month. What should you do?

    Choose an answer for question 11

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C. Ask for a short talk about her current priorities and how she prefers updates.

    Her behavior may reflect new priorities or a mismatch in format. Asking what she needs lets you adapt before the funding decision. Waiting risks losing her support, escalating damages the relationship, and cutting contact assumes the cause without checking.

  12. Question 12

    A vendor's project manager keeps sending scope changes straight to your technical lead, who has been building them without telling you. What should you do?

    Choose an answer for question 12

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B. Agree roles and a change-request route with both the vendor PM and your technical lead.

    The root cause is an unclear communication and change path. Agreeing roles and routing requests through change control fixes it for both sides. A blanket refusal harms collaboration, a formal complaint escalates too early, and allowing it undermines scope and change control.

  13. Question 13

    One team member produces excellent work but misses almost every deadline. Two colleagues who depend on his output are now frustrated. What is the BEST approach?

    Choose an answer for question 13

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. Explore the cause with him and agree specific changes to how his work is estimated.

    Missed dates can come from poor estimates, perfectionism or unclear priorities, and each needs a different fix. Finding the cause first leads to a targeted solution. Moving his work wastes his strengths, close monitoring hurts autonomy, and a formal plan is premature.

  14. Question 14

    Your new team includes people from two departments with a long history of friction. In the first weeks you notice small signs of distrust slowing their joint work. What should you do?

    Choose an answer for question 14

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A. Create shared goals that need both groups and invest early in team building.

    Shared goals create positive interdependence, and early team-building builds trust before pressure rises. Separating the groups avoids the problem without solving it, public confrontation makes people defensive, and ignoring the friction lets it grow.

  15. Question 15

    A week after the sponsor signed off the scope statement, an end-user group you had not identified sends a list of detailed feature requests. What should you do FIRST?

    Choose an answer for question 15

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B. Register the new stakeholders and assess their requests through change control.

    Two things happened: a stakeholder was missed, and new requirements arrived after the baseline. Register the stakeholders and assess the requests through change control. Adding them directly is scope creep, refusing ignores real needs, and passing them to the sponsor skips your impact analysis.

  16. Question 16

    During execution you discover that a mandatory regulatory requirement was missed in planning. Meeting it will add about three weeks before go-live. What should you do FIRST?

    Choose an answer for question 16

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C. Prepare a change request with the impact analysis and options for the decision makers.

    The requirement is not optional, but how to absorb it is a governance decision. A change request with impact analysis and options lets the right people decide. Changing the schedule alone skips approval, overtime may not cover three weeks, and approaching the regulator is outside the project's authority.

  17. Question 17

    You take over a project midway through execution. Documentation is thin, and the risk register has not been updated in four months. What is your FIRST priority?

    Choose an answer for question 17

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. Hold a risk review with the team and bring the risk register up to date quickly.

    An outdated risk register means nobody is watching current threats. A quick risk review restores that visibility first. Rewriting all documents takes too long, pushing on ignores exposure, and the stakeholder work, though useful, is less urgent than knowing the live risks.

  18. Question 18

    Your project will automate a manual process and remove 20 roles. The people in those roles hold most of the process knowledge you need for requirements. How should you approach them?

    Choose an answer for question 18

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B. Involve them as subject matter experts and be open about the project's goals.

    Openness and real involvement give the best chance of accurate requirements and cooperation, even when the change is difficult. Rushing, going around the staff or replacing them with consultants risks poor requirements and active resistance.

  19. Question 19

    A new regulation takes effect in 18 months. It does not change your current project's scope, but it will reshape your industry. What should you do?

    Choose an answer for question 19

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A. Assess whether the regulation could reduce the benefits the project should deliver.

    Even without a scope change, the regulation may affect whether the expected benefits arrive. Assessing that impact and sharing it with the sponsor is part of watching the business environment. Ignoring or waiting misses it, and adding scope on your own goes beyond your authority.

  20. Question 20

    A new product owner joins a team with a steady velocity of 30 points per two-week sprint. He proposes three-week sprints to get more done. What should you advise?

    Choose an answer for question 20

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C. Explain that longer sprints do not raise throughput and do reduce feedback frequency.

    A longer sprint holds more points but not more points per week; it mainly delays feedback. Explaining this coaches the new product owner. Going longer still makes the problem worse, and accepting without discussion misses the coaching moment. Sprint length is usually a team decision.

  21. Question 21

    Your project is one of twelve in a transformation program. You find that your timeline needs the same scarce specialists as another project in the same quarter. What should you do?

    Choose an answer for question 21

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B. Raise the conflict with the program manager for program-level prioritization.

    Within a program, shared resources are prioritized against program goals, which only the program manager can see in full. Raising it there gives the best overall outcome. Grabbing the resources, moving your plan or striking a side deal may help one project while hurting the program.

  22. Question 22

    On a hybrid project, development runs in sprints but regulatory approval follows a fixed process. The regulator's backlog delays approval by two months. How should you adjust?

    Choose an answer for question 22

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. Update the release plan and use the time for testing and reducing technical debt.

    Adapting the release plan and using the delay for work that lowers risk keeps the team productive without building up untested inventory. Stockpiling features adds risk, pausing wastes capacity, and pressuring a regulator is rarely effective or appropriate.

Stakeholder Management: 7 free questions

Try each scenario before opening the answer. Every explanation shows why the best choice fits PMI practice and why the other choices fall short.

Select an answer and check the reasoning. This untimed preview stays in this page session; it does not save an exam result or estimate your chance of passing.

  1. Question 23

    Three months into a predictive infrastructure project, a newly appointed regional director starts questioning the project's value in leadership meetings. She was not in the original stakeholder register and has authority over two of your key suppliers. What should you do FIRST?

    Choose an answer for question 23

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A. Analyze the director's interests and influence, then update the stakeholder register.

    A new, influential stakeholder must first be identified and analyzed. Understanding her interests and power lets you choose the right engagement approach and update the register and engagement plan. Sending documents or involving the sponsor acts before you understand what she needs, and raising a supplier risk treats a symptom rather than the stakeholder.

  2. Question 24

    Your power/interest analysis shows that the chief financial officer has high power over the project but low interest in its day-to-day progress. Which engagement approach is MOST appropriate for this stakeholder?

    Choose an answer for question 24

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C. Keep satisfied with concise updates on the issues that matter to finance and early warnings.

    High-power, low-interest stakeholders are kept satisfied: give them what they need without overloading them, and alert them early to anything that touches their concerns. Close management suits high-power, high-interest stakeholders, newsletters suit low-power, high-interest groups, and minimal monitoring would ignore real influence over the project.

  3. Question 25

    Customer service agents will use the new case-management tool your agile team is building. After four sprints, none of them has attended a sprint review, and early feedback from a pilot site says the screens do not match how agents work. What is the BEST way to address this?

    Choose an answer for question 25

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. Work with the product owner to bring agent representatives into sprint reviews and backlog refinement.

    Agile delivery depends on frequent feedback from the people who use the product. Involving agent representatives in reviews and refinement closes the gap while changes are still cheap. A survey at the end comes too late, a design freeze swaps adaptive delivery for a big up-front design, and escalation skips the collaborative step.

  4. Question 26

    Two weeks before a hybrid ERP rollout, the warehouse leads tell the change manager they will keep using their own spreadsheets "until the new system proves itself." The steering committee has approved the go-live date, and the warehouse is the largest user group. What should you do FIRST?

    Choose an answer for question 26

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B. Meet the warehouse leads to learn what they fear losing, and use it to adjust readiness activities.

    Resistance to organizational change usually has a cause, such as a missing report or fear of slower shipping, and this is the largest user group. Understanding their concerns first lets you aim readiness work (training, data checks, a parallel run) where it matters. A mandate or a technical block forces compliance without fixing the cause, and postponing acts before you know whether the concern is valid.

  5. Question 27

    Your stakeholder engagement assessment matrix shows the head of compliance as neutral today, but the plan needs her to be supportive before the audit-trail feature can ship. Release planning for that feature starts next month. Which action BEST moves her toward the desired engagement level?

    Choose an answer for question 27

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C. Invite her to shape the audit-trail acceptance criteria with the product owner during refinement.

    Moving a stakeholder from neutral to supportive usually takes real involvement in the decisions that affect her area. Shaping the acceptance criteria gives her influence and ownership before release planning starts. Copying her on everything adds volume without involvement, while a benefits summary or a sponsor directive informs or pressures her without engaging her.

  6. Question 28

    Residents near a planned solar farm have objected to construction traffic on a school route, and the local council votes on the site access permit in six weeks. Your stakeholder register still lists the residents' association as low power. What should you do?

    Choose an answer for question 28

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A. Reassess the association's influence in light of the permit vote and plan direct engagement with it.

    Stakeholder power changes with circumstances: through the council vote, the residents now have real influence over the permit. Reassessing them and engaging directly, for example on delivery routes and school hours, deals with the concern itself. Keeping the old classification ignores that influence, the contractor cannot own the project's engagement, and a press release promotes benefits without answering the objection.

  7. Question 29

    Marketing, finance and customer support each insist that their feature must lead the next release, and each has quietly lobbied a different developer. The product owner joined last month and has not yet published release priorities. Where should you focus?

    Choose an answer for question 29

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. Help the product owner run an open prioritization session using value and cost-of-delay data.

    The product owner owns backlog ordering, and an open session with the competing stakeholders, based on evidence such as value and cost of delay, builds shared understanding of the order. Your role is to support the new product owner, not to take the decision over. Equal splits and favoring finance ignore value, and routing everything to the sponsor bypasses the product owner role.

Risk Management: 13 free questions

Try each scenario before opening the answer. Every explanation shows why the best choice fits PMI practice and why the other choices fall short.

Select an answer and check the reasoning. This untimed preview stays in this page session; it does not save an exam result or estimate your chance of passing.

  1. Question 30

    A key supplier announces a two-week factory shutdown. Your risk register lists this exact event, with a contingency plan to switch to a pre-qualified alternate vendor. What should you do NEXT?

    Choose an answer for question 30

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B. Implement the contingency plan from the risk register and monitor how well it works.

    When an identified risk occurs, you implement the agreed response; that is why responses are planned in advance. You then monitor whether it works and update the register. Re-analysis wastes the time the plan was meant to save, and waiting for the sponsor ignores the authority already agreed in the risk response plan.

  2. Question 31

    Your team identifies two uncertain events. Threat: 30% probability of a $50,000 rework cost. Opportunity: 20% probability of a $20,000 saving from a supplier rebate. What is the combined expected monetary value (EMV) of these two risks?

    Choose an answer for question 31

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A. A net threat of $11,000.

    EMV is probability multiplied by impact, with threats negative and opportunities positive. Threat: 0.30 × −$50,000 = −$15,000. Opportunity: 0.20 × +$20,000 = +$4,000. The total is −$11,000, a net threat of $11,000. The $30,000 answer ignores probability, and $19,000 adds the opportunity instead of offsetting it.

  3. Question 32

    A regulator issues an unexpected ruling that halts one workstream for three days. Nobody had identified this event as a risk, and there is no planned response. Which action is MOST appropriate?

    Choose an answer for question 32

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C. Apply a workaround to limit the impact, then add the event to the risk register.

    An unidentified risk that occurs needs a workaround: an unplanned response to an event that is already happening. Afterward, record it and review whether similar risks exist. Management reserve needs sponsor approval and may not be needed, lessons learned alone does nothing about the impact, and looking for blame does not help the project.

  4. Question 33

    You must choose between two delivery options. Option A: build in-house for $120,000, with a 40% chance of a $50,000 overrun. Option B: buy from a vendor for $135,000, with a 10% chance of $20,000 in extra integration cost. Based on expected monetary value, which option has the lower expected cost?

    Choose an answer for question 33

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C. Option B, with an expected cost of $137,000

    Expected cost = base cost + (probability × impact). Option A: $120,000 + (0.40 × $50,000) = $140,000. Option B: $135,000 + (0.10 × $20,000) = $137,000. Option B is $3,000 cheaper on an expected-value basis. The other two answers leave out the risk, which is the point of a decision-tree analysis.

  5. Question 34

    A complex equipment installation could overrun its budget. You award the work on a firm fixed price contract so that the vendor carries the cost of any overrun. Which threat response strategy is this?

    Choose an answer for question 34

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C. Transfer

    Transfer shifts the impact of a threat, and ownership of the response, to a third party. Fixed price contracts, insurance and warranties are typical examples. The risk still exists, but the vendor bears the cost. Avoiding would remove the threat entirely, mitigating would reduce its probability or impact, and accepting would leave it with the project.

  6. Question 35

    Your contract pays a $40,000 bonus if the system goes live two weeks early. You reassign your two most experienced engineers to the critical path to make sure the early date is met. Which opportunity response is this?

    Choose an answer for question 35

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B. Exploit

    Exploit aims to make sure an opportunity happens, for example by assigning the best resources so the early finish is achieved. Enhance only increases the probability or impact, share gives part of the opportunity to a third party who can help capture it, and escalate passes it to a level above the project.

  7. Question 36

    During a risk review you notice that several high-priority risks have agreed response plans, but nobody is named to watch for their warning signs or to act when they occur. What should you do?

    Choose an answer for question 36

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A. Assign a risk owner to each risk and record the owner in the risk register.

    Each risk needs a risk owner who monitors its triggers and carries out the response when needed. Recording owners in the register makes accountability visible. The project manager oversees the process but cannot watch every risk personally. Extra reserve does not fix a missing owner, and escalation is for risks outside the project's authority.

  8. Question 37

    To reduce the risk of an aging data center failing, your team plans to move the application to a new hosting provider. The migration itself could corrupt customer data. How should this new risk be handled?

    Choose an answer for question 37

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C. Record it as a secondary risk, then analyze it and plan a response before migrating.

    A risk created by carrying out a risk response is a secondary risk. It is recorded, analyzed and given its own response, for example a tested backup and rollback plan, before the migration goes ahead. Residual risk is what remains after a response, a trigger is a warning sign, and an issue is something that has already happened.

  9. Question 38

    After qualitative analysis, twelve risks score low on probability and impact. They do not justify response plans now, but conditions on the project could change. What should you do with them?

    Choose an answer for question 38

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B. Keep them on a watch list in the risk register and review them at regular intervals.

    Low-priority risks stay in the risk register on a watch list and are reviewed periodically, because their probability or impact can change. Deleting them loses that visibility, full response plans for every low risk waste effort, and the issue log is for events that have already occurred.

  10. Question 39

    An agile team building a payments feature is unsure whether a third-party fraud service can handle its expected transaction volume. If it cannot, much of the planned design would change. How should the team address this uncertainty?

    Choose an answer for question 39

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. Add a spike near the top of the backlog to test the service early and learn quickly.

    Agile teams reduce high-impact uncertainty early by prioritizing risk-reduction work, such as a time-boxed spike, near the top of the backlog. Learning in the first sprints keeps a failed assumption cheap. Waiting until release or relying on a written guarantee leaves the risk unresolved until it is expensive to change course.

  11. Question 40

    Four sprints into a release, the risk burndown chart shows total risk exposure unchanged, while velocity has held steady at about 30 points. What does this pattern MOST likely indicate?

    Choose an answer for question 40

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C. Features are being finished, but little of that work reduces the release's major risks.

    A risk burndown tracks total exposure over time, so a flat line alongside steady velocity means the team is delivering work that does not retire risk. The usual response is to move risk-reduction work, such as spikes or early integration, higher in the backlog. Steady velocity says nothing about risk, and lowering the scores to fit the chart would hide the problem instead of solving it.

  12. Question 41

    A Monte Carlo simulation of your schedule gives a 35% chance of meeting the contractual completion date and an 80% chance of finishing within 18 days after it. The sponsor asks how confident she can be in the contract date. Which response is BEST?

    Choose an answer for question 41

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B. Share the 35% confidence level and present options to raise it, such as reserves or responses.

    Simulation results exist to inform decisions, so the sponsor needs the real confidence level and options to improve it, such as schedule reserve, targeted risk responses or a negotiated date. Calling the date achievable hides a 65% chance of missing it. Narrowing the inputs to get a better answer distorts the analysis, and moving the baseline needs change control and, for a contract date, the customer's agreement.

  13. Question 42

    Your hybrid team plans to pilot a generative AI tool that drafts customer letters, starting next sprint. Legal has just flagged that the vendor may store prompts outside the country, which could breach your data-residency obligations. What should you do?

    Choose an answer for question 42

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. Log the compliance risk, verify the vendor's data handling with legal, and agree a response first.

    A possible regulatory breach is a compliance risk that must be analyzed before customer data reaches the tool. Logging it, confirming the facts with legal and agreeing a response, such as a different hosting option, new contract terms or a later pilot, keeps the decision informed. A sales assurance is not verified evidence and a standard clause may not cover residency, while dropping AI entirely gives up a possible benefit before the risk is understood.

Change Control: 6 free questions

Try each scenario before opening the answer. Every explanation shows why the best choice fits PMI practice and why the other choices fall short.

Select an answer and check the reasoning. This untimed preview stays in this page session; it does not save an exam result or estimate your chance of passing.

  1. Question 43

    On a fixed-price predictive project, a client engineer asks one of your developers directly to add an extra export format to a report, saying it is "a small tweak." The developer asks you how to proceed. What should you tell the developer?

    Choose an answer for question 43

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. Assess the impact and route the request through change control before doing any work.

    Any change to the agreed scope, however small, goes through integrated change control: assess impact on scope, schedule, cost and risk, then submit a change request for a decision. Doing the work informally is scope creep. Baselines can change through the process, so an outright refusal is wrong, and an email alone is not an approval.

  2. Question 44

    The change control board approves a request that moves a milestone two weeks later and adds a security test cycle. What should the project manager do NEXT?

    Choose an answer for question 44

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B. Update the affected baselines and documents, then communicate the change to stakeholders.

    After approval, the project manager updates the schedule and scope baselines and related documents, communicates the decision, and then manages implementation. Starting work before plans reflect the change leaves the team working from outdated baselines. Lessons learned can come later, and the board's decision is already the formal authorization.

  3. Question 45

    Mid-sprint, a senior stakeholder asks the Scrum team to add a reporting feature that she needs for a board meeting next month. The team is on track to meet the sprint goal. What is the MOST appropriate response?

    Choose an answer for question 45

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A. Refer the request to the product owner to add to the product backlog and prioritize it.

    In agile work, new requests go to the product owner, who adds them to the product backlog and orders them against everything else. The sprint goal is protected during the sprint, and a one-month deadline can be met by prioritizing the feature for the next sprint. A formal change board and sprint extensions do not fit the agile framework.

  4. Question 46

    Your program controls baselined hardware scope through a change control board, while the software team works from a product backlog. The product owner wants to swap two software features of equal size. Neither affects hardware interfaces, the contract or the release date. How should this change be handled?

    Choose an answer for question 46

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B. Let the product owner reorder the backlog, since the swap stays inside agreed release limits.

    Hybrid governance works best when each part of the work uses the control that suits it. Reordering equal-sized features inside agreed release boundaries is normal product owner work in the backlog. Sending it to the change board adds delay with no governance benefit, sponsor approval is not needed for backlog ordering, and the issue log is for problems, not planned scope choices.

  5. Question 47

    A week after go-live, you find that a developer changed a production database setting to fix a performance problem. The fix works, but it never went through change control, and the configuration records no longer match production. What should you do NEXT?

    Choose an answer for question 47

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C. Raise a change request to assess the fix and bring the configuration records up to date.

    The change is already live and working, so the next step is to bring it under control: assess its impact through a change request, then update the configuration records based on the decision. Reversing it brings back the performance problem without any analysis. Leaving it undocumented keeps the records wrong, and reporting the developer focuses on blame instead of fixing the process.

  6. Question 48

    From next year, a sustainability regulation will require at least 50% recycled material in your product's packaging. Your agile team is two sprints from releasing a new packaging design with 20% recycled content, and the product owner asks for your advice. What is the MOST appropriate recommendation?

    Choose an answer for question 48

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. Assess the regulation's impact on the design with experts and reorder the backlog accordingly.

    An external change such as a new regulation is first assessed with the right experts, and the product owner then reorders the backlog based on the findings, which may pull compliance work forward. Releasing a design that will soon be noncompliant risks wasting the investment. Abandoning the sprint acts before the impact is known, and a formal change request raised before any analysis gives decision makers nothing to decide on.

Schedule Management: 7 free questions

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  1. Question 49

    A network has two paths. Path 1: A (3 days) → B (5 days) → D (2 days). Path 2: A (3 days) → C (4 days) → D (2 days). Activity C is delayed by 2 days. What is the effect on the project finish date?

    Choose an answer for question 49

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    Answer: C. The project finishes 1 day late because C had 1 day of float.

    Path 1 is 10 days and is critical; path 2 is 9 days, so C has 1 day of total float. A 2-day delay uses that float and adds 1 day, making path 2 11 days long and the new critical path. The project now finishes 1 day late. A non-critical activity affects the finish date once its delay exceeds its float.

  2. Question 50

    Using three-point (beta/PERT) estimating, an activity has an optimistic duration of 4 days, a most likely duration of 6 days, and a pessimistic duration of 14 days. What is the expected duration?

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    Answer: B. 7 days

    The beta (PERT) formula weights the most likely value four times: (O + 4M + P) ÷ 6 = (4 + 24 + 14) ÷ 6 = 42 ÷ 6 = 7 days. The triangular average, (4 + 6 + 14) ÷ 3, would give 8 days. The most likely value alone, 6 days, ignores the risk shown by the long pessimistic tail.

  3. Question 51

    The sponsor needs the project to finish three weeks earlier. The budget is fixed and cannot increase. Several design and build activities on the critical path could partly overlap. Which technique is MOST appropriate?

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    Answer: D. Fast-track the critical path by overlapping design and build where possible.

    Fast tracking runs activities in parallel that were planned in sequence. It shortens the schedule without direct added cost, though it increases risk and possible rework. Crashing adds resources and therefore cost, which the fixed budget rules out. Resource leveling usually lengthens the schedule, and cutting scope needs a change decision the sponsor has not asked for.

  4. Question 52

    Activity K has an early start of day 8, an early finish of day 12, a late start of day 11 and a late finish of day 15. Its only successor, activity M, has an early start of day 14. What are the total float and free float of activity K?

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    Answer: A. Total float 3 days, free float 2 days

    Total float = LS − ES = 11 − 8 = 3 days (or LF − EF = 15 − 12 = 3). Free float = ES of the successor − EF of the activity = 14 − 12 = 2 days. K can slip 2 days without delaying M and 3 days without delaying the project. The second option swaps the two values, and the third assumes free float always equals total float.

  5. Question 53

    The release backlog started at 180 story points. After three sprints the team has completed 90 points, and the product owner has just added 30 points of new scope. Velocity has been steady at 30 points per sprint. How many more sprints should the team forecast for the release?

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    Answer: B. 4 sprints

    Remaining work = 180 − 90 + 30 = 120 points, and 120 ÷ 30 points per sprint = 4 sprints. Three sprints ignores the new scope. Six sprints divides the original 180 points by velocity without subtracting completed work, and seven divides the new total of 210 points as if nothing had been done.

  6. Question 54

    A regulatory submission milestone is fixed nine months out. Work for the next quarter is well understood, but later activities depend on clinical results that will not be available for several months. How should you plan the schedule for this hybrid project?

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    Answer: A. Detail the near-term work, hold later work as planning packages, and refine it as results arrive.

    This is rolling wave planning: detail the work that is well understood, hold later work at a higher level, and refine it as information arrives, while the fixed milestone stays in the schedule. A fully detailed nine-month schedule would rest on guesses and need constant rework. Leaving out the milestone loses the key constraint, and asking for results before they exist creates false precision.

  7. Question 55

    Your schedule is 4 days behind. Three activities on the only critical path can be crashed: P saves 2 days for $6,000, Q saves 2 days for $5,000, and R saves 4 days for $14,000. Crashing will not create a new critical path. Which choice recovers the 4 days at the LOWEST cost?

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    Answer: D. Crash activities P and Q for $11,000.

    Crashing should buy the needed time at the lowest added cost. P and Q together save 2 + 2 = 4 days for $6,000 + $5,000 = $11,000, which is $3,000 less than crashing R alone. Crashing P alone recovers only 2 days, and Q plus R saves 6 days, more than needed, at a higher cost.

Agile and Hybrid: 7 free questions

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  1. Question 56

    Over three sprints, the team's completed story points fell from 40 to 26. Team members mention frequent interruptions from production support requests that come to them directly. As the servant leader, what should you do FIRST?

    Choose an answer for question 56

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    Answer: B. Explore the interruption pattern with the team in the retrospective and agree how to handle it.

    A servant leader makes the problem visible and helps the team find a solution, and the retrospective is the natural place to do that. The team might agree a support rotation or an intake process with the product owner. Adding people treats the symptom, a blanket refusal ignores real business needs, and lowering the forecast hides the cause.

  2. Question 57

    A medical device project uses a predictive plan for hardware, with regulatory gates, and two-week sprints for the companion app. The app team keeps finishing features that cannot be tested on real hardware until months later. Which approach BEST reduces this integration risk?

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    Answer: A. Align the app release plan with hardware milestones and plan integration tests at each one.

    Hybrid projects work when their integration points are planned on purpose. Mapping app releases to hardware milestones creates regular points where real components are tested together. Forcing regulated hardware into sprints ignores its constraints, pausing the app wastes capacity, and leaving integration to the end pushes the risk to the most expensive point.

  3. Question 58

    Developers on your Scrum team are often idle for a day or more waiting for answers about acceptance criteria. The product owner also runs a business unit and is rarely available. What should you do?

    Choose an answer for question 58

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    Answer: C. Work with the product owner and sponsor on availability, or a delegate with decision authority.

    The product owner role needs to be available to make decisions; otherwise flow stops. Addressing availability directly, possibly through a delegate with real authority, removes the impediment. Assumptions create rework, detailed up-front specs abandon agile collaboration, and waiting for a steering committee meeting leaves the team blocked in the meantime.

  4. Question 59

    At the sprint review, the product owner rejects two stories because they were never performance-tested. The developers reply that performance testing has never been part of their definition of done. Several stakeholders are in the room. What should happen NEXT?

    Choose an answer for question 59

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    Answer: C. Treat the stories as not done, return them to the backlog, and revisit the definition of done.

    The product owner decides whether increments meet expectations, and work that does not meet them is not presented as done. Returning the stories to the backlog keeps progress transparent, and the retrospective is the place to update the definition of done. Accepting them hides undone work as technical debt, extending the time-box breaks the cadence, and a stakeholder vote replaces the product owner's accountability.

  5. Question 60

    For a month, the In Review band on the team's cumulative flow diagram has widened every week, while the Done line has nearly flattened. Developers keep pulling new items into progress. Which action is MOST appropriate?

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    Answer: A. Have developers help clear the review queue and set a WIP limit on the review column.

    A widening band on a cumulative flow diagram shows work piling up in that stage while throughput stalls. Limiting work in progress at the bottleneck and having developers help clear it restores flow at no extra cost. Hiring adds cost before the system is fixed, skipping review weakens quality, and extra columns measure the problem without solving it.

  6. Question 61

    The sponsor wants all 40 planned features built before a new self-service portal launches in nine months. Early customer research suggests that most users mainly want to track orders and change delivery addresses. Which approach BEST supports value delivery?

    Choose an answer for question 61

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    Answer: B. Release a minimum viable product with the two core features, then grow it based on usage data.

    A minimum viable product delivers the most valued features early, starts realizing benefits sooner and tests assumptions with real usage, which then guides what to build next. A single big release delays all value and feedback for nine months. Ordering by difficulty ignores value, and a long survey postpones learning that real use would provide faster.

  7. Question 62

    A newly formed Scrum team asks you, the project manager acting as Scrum Master, to hand out their tasks each morning as their previous manager did. Sprint planning has already produced a clear sprint backlog. How should you respond?

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    Answer: D. Coach the team to pull work from the sprint backlog and help them agree how to coordinate it.

    Self-management grows through coaching. Helping the team pull work and agree how to coordinate in the daily scrum builds the habit while support is still on hand. Assigning tasks keeps the old dependency, a flat refusal leaves the team without support, and the product owner decides what to build, not who does each task.

Procurement: 6 free questions

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  1. Question 63

    Your organization needs a vendor to supply and install 200 identical network switches. The specifications are complete and stable, and finance wants the vendor to carry the risk of cost overruns. Which contract type is MOST suitable?

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    Answer: C. Firm fixed price

    When scope is well defined and stable, a firm fixed price contract puts the cost risk on the seller, which is what finance wants. Cost-reimbursable contracts (cost plus fixed fee, cost plus incentive fee) leave the overrun risk with the buyer. Time and materials suits small or undefined work, not a fully specified delivery.

  2. Question 64

    A contractor submits a claim for additional payment, stating that your team's late approval of design drawings delayed their work by ten days. Your team disputes the cause. How should this be handled?

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    Answer: D. Follow the contract's claims administration process and negotiate a resolution with evidence.

    Contested changes and claims are handled through the claims administration process in the contract. Review the evidence, negotiate, and use alternative dispute resolution if needed; litigation is the last resort. Rejecting or paying without analysis ignores the contract terms, and going straight to court skips the preferred and cheaper routes.

  3. Question 65

    A vendor delivers a software module that fails three of the acceptance criteria defined in the statement of work. The vendor asks for full payment, promising to fix the defects in a later release. What should you do?

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    Answer: B. Document the nonconformance and notify the vendor formally under the contract.

    Acceptance depends on meeting the agreed criteria. When a deliverable fails, record the nonconformance and notify the seller formally, following the contract's terms for acceptance, rework and payment. Paying or accepting gives up the buyer's leverage, and deducting costs on your own may breach the contract.

  4. Question 66

    A fixed price incentive fee (FPIF) contract has a target cost of $800,000, a target profit of $80,000, a target price of $880,000, a ceiling price of $950,000 and a 70/30 buyer/seller share ratio. What is the point of total assumption (PTA)?

    Choose an answer for question 66

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    Answer: B. $900,000

    PTA = ((ceiling price − target price) ÷ buyer's share) + target cost = ($70,000 ÷ 0.70) + $800,000 = $900,000. Above $900,000 in actual cost, the seller absorbs every extra dollar because the ceiling price caps what the buyer pays. $1,033,333 divides by the seller's 30% share instead of the buyer's 70%, $870,000 skips the division, and $950,000 is the ceiling price itself.

  5. Question 67

    Your organization is buying custom software development, and the requirements are expected to evolve as users test early releases. Legal wants a contract that keeps cost under control while letting priorities change between increments. Which contracting approach is MOST suitable?

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    Answer: C. A master agreement with fixed-price increments and the buyer's right to reprioritize scope each increment.

    Agile-friendly contracts often pair a master agreement with fixed-price increments, so the buyer controls cost per increment while keeping the right to change priorities between them. A firm fixed price for the full list assumes stable requirements and turns every change into a renegotiation. An uncapped time and materials contract gives up cost control, and an end-of-project award fee delays any judgment of value until the end.

  6. Question 68

    During bid evaluation, you learn that the lowest bidder for a logistics contract cannot provide the carbon-emissions reporting required by your company's new supplier code of conduct, which is listed in the source selection criteria. Its price is 12% below the next bid. What should you do?

    Choose an answer for question 68

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    Answer: A. Apply the published selection criteria, including the code-of-conduct requirement, to every bid.

    Bids must be evaluated against the published source selection criteria, and the code-of-conduct requirement is one of them. Applying the criteria consistently is fair to every bidder and keeps the company compliant. Awarding on a promise to comply later accepts a known breach, inviting only one bidder to resubmit is unfair to the others, and seeking a waiver to save money undermines the policy.

Quality Management: 7 free questions

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  1. Question 69

    A control chart for weld strength shows all points within the control limits, but the last seven consecutive measurements fall above the mean. What does this indicate?

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    Answer: A. A likely assignable cause that should be investigated even though the limits are not breached.

    The rule of seven says that seven or more consecutive points on one side of the mean are unlikely to be random, even inside the control limits. The pattern suggests an assignable cause worth investigating. Control limits come from process data and are separate from specification limits, so widening them would hide the signal.

  2. Question 70

    To reduce defects, your project funds operator training and creates documented work instructions before production begins. In the cost of quality model, how are these costs classified?

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    Answer: C. Prevention costs

    Training and documented processes are prevention costs. Together with appraisal costs (inspection and testing), they are the cost of conformance. Failure costs, internal (rework, scrap) or external (warranty, returns), are the cost of nonconformance. Spending on prevention is usually the cheapest way to improve quality.

  3. Question 71

    Your team logged 180 defects in the last release across nine categories. You have budget to fix the causes of only a few categories this quarter. Which tool BEST helps you decide where to focus?

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    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C. A Pareto diagram ranking defect categories by how often they occur.

    A Pareto diagram sorts categories by frequency, which shows the few causes behind most defects (the 80/20 principle). That is what you need to direct limited effort. Scatter diagrams test a relationship between two variables, control charts show process stability over time, and flowcharts show process steps; none of them ranks where to focus.

  4. Question 72

    Defects reported by customers have doubled over the last three releases. The team does all of its testing in a dedicated hardening sprint at the end of each release. Which change would MOST improve quality?

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    Answer: B. Build testing into every sprint, backed by automated tests and a definition of done.

    Quality in agile delivery is built in, not inspected in at the end. Testing every story within the sprint, supported by automation and a definition of done, finds defects when they are cheapest to fix. A second hardening sprint only extends late inspection, an extra inspector adds appraisal without prevention, and tracking defects per developer encourages blame rather than improvement.

  5. Question 73

    A client complains that the basic-model office chairs your project delivered have fewer adjustment features than the premium model. Every chair meets the agreed specification, and none is defective. How should you classify this complaint?

    Choose an answer for question 73

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    Answer: D. A grade difference, because the chairs meet the agreed requirements with fewer features.

    Grade is a category for products with the same use but different features, while quality is the degree to which a product meets its requirements. The chairs meet the agreed specification, so they are low grade but not low quality. If the client now wants premium features, that is a scope change, not a defect or a nonconformance against what was agreed.

  6. Question 74

    Integration test failures spiked after your hybrid team introduced a new build pipeline. The team already knows which pipeline stage fails most often, but not why. Which tool should the team use NEXT?

    Choose an answer for question 74

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A. A cause-and-effect diagram to explore the possible causes of failures at that stage.

    Once the problem area is known, a cause-and-effect (Ishikawa) diagram, often combined with the five whys, helps the team explore why the failures happen. A Pareto chart ranks categories, which the team has effectively done already. Control charts show process stability, and a histogram by weekday describes the data without explaining its cause.

  7. Question 75

    An internal quality audit finds that your team skips peer reviews on urgent changes, contrary to the quality management plan. No defects have yet been traced to the skipped reviews. How should you respond to the finding?

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    Answer: C. Analyze why reviews are skipped and agree corrective action, such as a fast-track review path.

    Quality audits find process gaps before they cause defects, which is their main value. Understanding why reviews are skipped, then agreeing a corrective action such as a fast-track review for urgent changes, closes the gap and keeps the plan workable. Taking no action waits for defects, removing the requirement weakens the process without analysis, and another audit only delays the fix.

Communications Management: 6 free questions

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  1. Question 76

    Your project team grows from 6 to 10 members. How many additional communication channels does this create?

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    Answer: C. 30

    Communication channels = n(n − 1) ÷ 2. With 6 people: 6 × 5 ÷ 2 = 15 channels. With 10 people: 10 × 9 ÷ 2 = 45 channels. The increase is 45 − 15 = 30 additional channels. The 45 answer is the new total, not the increase, which the question asks for.

  2. Question 77

    The sponsor tells you she has stopped reading your weekly status report because it is twelve pages of task detail. She still wants to know when decisions are needed from her. What should you do FIRST?

    Choose an answer for question 77

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    Answer: D. Review her information needs with her and update the communications management plan.

    Communication should be tailored to each stakeholder's needs. The first step is to understand what she needs (for example, decisions, risks and milestones on a single page) and record the change in the communications management plan. Changing format for everyone, building dashboards or adding meetings all act before you have confirmed what she actually wants.

  3. Question 78

    Your team is spread across Toronto, Dubai and Manila. Important decisions made in Toronto calls are reaching Manila team members a day late, and some work has been redone as a result. Which action BEST addresses the problem?

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    Answer: B. Agree a team working agreement for decision logging, async updates and shared overlap hours.

    Distributed teams need explicit agreements on how decisions are recorded and shared: a decision log, asynchronous updates, and a few shared overlap hours. A working agreement fixes the system for everyone. Shifting the burden to one location or adding manual check-ins treats symptoms, and a weekly summary is too slow for daily decisions.

  4. Question 79

    Executives keep asking your agile team for ad hoc status updates, and each request costs the team about an hour of preparation. The executives want to see progress toward the release goal, not task detail. Which approach is MOST appropriate?

    Choose an answer for question 79

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    Answer: A. Publish a visible release burnup and invite the executives to sprint reviews for discussion.

    Information radiators such as a release burnup show progress toward the goal at a glance without extra preparation, and sprint reviews give executives a regular place for deeper questions. Rotating a report writer still spends team capacity on manual reporting. Batching questions slows the answers, and a task walkthrough gives executives the detail they said they do not want.

  5. Question 80

    A design decision affecting three subcontractors must be agreed this week. Each has raised conflicting concerns by email, and the thread now has 40 replies and no decision. Which communication method is MOST appropriate?

    Choose an answer for question 80

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C. Hold a working session with all three to resolve the concerns and agree the decision together.

    Interactive communication is best when several parties must resolve conflicting concerns and reach a decision quickly, because they can question each other and agree in real time. A push memo imposes a decision without resolving the concerns. A portal is pull communication, too slow for a decision due this week, and trimming the email thread keeps the format that has already failed.

  6. Question 81

    In two months, your hybrid project will change shift patterns for 300 plant workers. HR has drafted a single announcement email, and the union representative has asked to see the plan before anything goes out. What should you do FIRST?

    Choose an answer for question 81

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    Answer: D. Share the plan with the union representative, then plan tailored messages for each audience.

    Organizational change needs planned, two-way communication tailored to each affected group, and the union representative is a key stakeholder who has asked to be involved. Engaging the representative first and then planning messages by audience reduces resistance. A single email ignores that request, silence lets rumors fill the gap, and informal briefings create inconsistent messages.

Scope Management: 7 free questions

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  1. Question 82

    Your quality team has inspected a completed deliverable and confirmed that it meets the specifications. What is the NEXT step to close out this deliverable?

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    Answer: A. Validate scope by obtaining formal acceptance from the customer or sponsor.

    Control Quality confirms that a deliverable is correct; Validate Scope gets the customer's formal acceptance. A verified deliverable is not complete until the customer or sponsor accepts it. Handover, contract closure and releasing resources come after acceptance.

  2. Question 83

    While reviewing a sprint build, you find that a developer added an animated onboarding tour that no one requested. The developer says users will love it and it took only two days. What is the MOST appropriate response?

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    Answer: C. Explain that unrequested features are gold plating and refer it to the product owner.

    Adding features nobody requested is gold plating. It uses capacity, adds untested scope and risk, and skips the product owner's prioritization. Explain the issue and let the product owner decide whether the tour has value against the backlog. Keeping it silently rewards the behavior, and removing it or billing the customer skips that decision.

  3. Question 84

    An auditor asks how you can show that every regulatory requirement is covered by a deliverable and a test case. Which project artifact BEST demonstrates this?

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    Answer: D. The requirements traceability matrix

    The requirements traceability matrix links each requirement to its source, the deliverable that meets it, and the test that verifies it. That is the evidence the auditor wants. The WBS breaks down deliverables, the scope statement describes scope and acceptance, and the quality plan describes the approach; none traces individual requirements end to end.

  4. Question 85

    A user story to "let customers manage their accounts online" is estimated at 40 points, more than the team's entire velocity of 32. The product owner wants it in the next sprint. What should the team do?

    Choose an answer for question 85

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    Answer: B. Split the story into smaller stories that each deliver value and fit in one sprint.

    Stories should be small enough to finish within a sprint while still delivering value, such as "update a delivery address" or "view order history." Splitting by user value keeps each increment usable and testable. Carrying unfinished work over undermines the sprint goal, extending a sprint breaks the time-box, and splitting by phase creates pieces that deliver nothing on their own.

  5. Question 86

    While reviewing the WBS, you notice that the work packages under Data Migration cover only part of the work described in its WBS dictionary entry. Data cleansing appears nowhere in the WBS, and the scope baseline is due for approval next week. What does this indicate?

    Choose an answer for question 86

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    Answer: A. The WBS breaks the 100% rule, so the missing work must be added before the baseline is set.

    The 100% rule says the WBS must include all the work, and the children of each element must add up to all of the parent's work. Without data cleansing, the scope baseline would understate the work, so it is added before baselining. Trimming the dictionary hides scope, and contingency reserve covers identified risks, not known work left out of the plan.

  6. Question 87

    Usage data from the first release of a hybrid CRM project shows that customers rarely open a reporting module that took 30% of the effort. Two more reporting features are planned for the next release. What should you recommend?

    Choose an answer for question 87

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C. Review the usage data with the product owner and reconsider the remaining report features.

    Delivering value means letting evidence from real use guide what to build next. Reviewing the data with the product owner, and using change control if baselined scope changes, can move effort to features customers value. Building as planned ignores the evidence, stopping all reporting acts before understanding why use is low, and more training assumes the cause is a skills gap.

  7. Question 88

    Twelve department heads must agree on requirements for a shared document management system, and separate interviews last month produced conflicting priorities. You need consensus within two weeks. Which technique is MOST effective?

    Choose an answer for question 88

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. Run a facilitated workshop with all the department heads to reconcile and agree requirements.

    Facilitated workshops bring cross-functional stakeholders together to resolve differences and reach consensus on requirements faster than collecting views separately. More interviews or a questionnaire repeat the separate collection that already produced conflicts. A sponsor ranking may settle priorities quickly but loses the department heads' buy-in.

Cost Management: 6 free questions

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  1. Question 89

    An identified risk, a 15% currency rate increase on imported equipment, occurs. The cost baseline includes a contingency reserve for this risk. Which funds should cover the extra cost?

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    Answer: B. The contingency reserve, as part of the planned risk response.

    Contingency reserves cover identified risks (known-unknowns). They are part of the cost baseline, and the project manager uses them as part of the planned response. Management reserve covers unidentified risks (unknown-unknowns), sits outside the baseline, and needs sponsor approval. Moving savings between work packages informally weakens cost control.

  2. Question 90

    In the first week of a feasibility study, the sponsor asks for a rough cost estimate for a new warehouse. Very little detail is known, but the company built a similar warehouse two years ago. Which estimating technique is MOST appropriate?

    Choose an answer for question 90

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A. Analogous estimating from the earlier warehouse

    Analogous estimating uses actual costs from a similar past project. It is quick and suits early phases when detail is limited, at the cost of accuracy. Bottom-up and three-point estimating need detailed work packages and activities that do not exist yet. Parametric estimating needs reliable unit rates and quantities, which the study has not produced.

  3. Question 91

    Your work package estimates total $800,000. Contingency reserves for identified risks are $60,000, and the sponsor holds a $40,000 management reserve. What is the cost baseline?

    Choose an answer for question 91

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    Answer: B. $860,000

    The cost baseline is the work package estimates plus contingency reserves: $800,000 + $60,000 = $860,000. Adding the management reserve gives the total project budget of $900,000, but management reserve is not part of the cost baseline. That is why using it needs sponsor approval and a baseline change.

  4. Question 92

    An agile team costs $96,000 per two-week sprint. The product owner estimates the release backlog at 240 story points, and the team's velocity has been stable at 40 points per sprint. What is the estimated labor cost to finish the release?

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    Answer: D. $576,000

    Sprints needed = 240 ÷ 40 = 6, and 6 sprints × $96,000 = $576,000. Agile cost forecasts are usually built from the team's cost per sprint and the forecast number of sprints, then updated as velocity changes. The other figures correspond to 5, 7 and 8 sprints, which do not match the backlog and velocity.

  5. Question 93

    The sponsor can fund only one of two projects. Project X has a net present value (NPV) of $420,000 over five years. Project Y has an NPV of $310,000 over three years. Based on NPV, which project should be selected?

    Choose an answer for question 93

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    Answer: B. Project X, because NPV already accounts for the time value of money.

    NPV converts each project's cash flows into today's money, so differences in timing are already reflected, and the higher NPV of $420,000 adds more value. Choosing Y for speed or lower risk applies criteria the question did not ask about. Recalculating over equal periods is unnecessary when the selection criterion is NPV, because the number of years is already built into each figure.

  6. Question 94

    Your cost baseline shows spending peaking at $1.2 million in the third quarter, but finance has set a funding limit of $900,000 per quarter. Several third-quarter activities have float. What should you do?

    Choose an answer for question 94

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A. Reschedule activities within their float to bring third-quarter spending under the limit.

    Funding limit reconciliation compares planned spending with funding limits and, where they clash, reschedules work, using available float first, to smooth expenditure while keeping scope and the end date. Asking finance to change its limit comes only if rescheduling cannot close the gap. Management reserve is not a cash-flow tool, and cutting scope needs change control and gives up value.

Resource Management: 7 free questions

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  1. Question 95

    Two functional managers both say that the only senior database engineer is committed to their work during the same three weeks. Your project's critical path depends on her. What should you do FIRST?

    Choose an answer for question 95

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    Answer: C. Review the resource calendars and negotiate with both managers using schedule impacts.

    Resource conflicts in a matrix organization are first handled by negotiation with the functional managers, using resource calendars and the schedule impact as evidence. Escalate only if negotiation fails. Hiring adds cost without analysis, and splitting her time evenly may delay both pieces of work, including your critical path.

  2. Question 96

    Two experienced team members disagree sharply about the system architecture, and the argument has started to affect team meetings. Both positions have technical merit. Which conflict resolution approach is generally BEST here?

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    Answer: D. Collaborate with both to examine the trade-offs and reach a solution they can commit to.

    Collaborating, or problem solving, brings out the real trade-offs and builds commitment to the result. It is usually best when both views have merit and there is time to work through them. Smoothing and withdrawing leave the conflict unresolved, and forcing can damage trust while discarding useful input.

  3. Question 97

    Your schedule shows a tester allocated at 150% for two weeks. You want to remove the over-allocation without changing the project end date. Which technique should you use?

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    Answer: B. Resource smoothing

    Resource smoothing adjusts activities only within their available float, so the critical path and end date do not change. Resource leveling may move activities beyond their float and can extend the schedule. Crashing and fast tracking compress the schedule; they do not remove over-allocation.

  4. Question 98

    A newly formed agile team was polite and cautious in its first two sprints. In sprint three, members began openly arguing about coding standards and who should review whose work. Which stage is the team MOST likely in, and how should you respond?

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    Answer: A. Storming: help the team work through the disagreements and agree shared working norms.

    Open disagreement about roles and standards after a polite start is typical of storming. Facilitating the conflict toward agreed norms, such as a working agreement on code reviews, helps the team move into norming. Forming is the cautious stage the team has already left, norming is when agreement emerges, and treating conflict as high performance leaves it unresolved.

  5. Question 99

    Your RACI chart lists two managers as accountable for approving the test strategy, and each has sent the test lead conflicting instructions this week. What is the BEST way to fix this?

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    Answer: C. Name one accountable manager, make the other consulted, and confirm it with both.

    A RACI chart should have exactly one accountable person for each item, so every decision has a clear owner. Making one manager accountable and the other consulted keeps both involved without conflicting authority. Shared accountability keeps the conflict alive, and moving the decision to the test lead or to yourself ignores who should own it.

  6. Question 100

    Only one person on your agile team can configure the payment gateway, and stories that need her regularly wait two or three days. She has also booked a month of leave next quarter. Which action BEST addresses this?

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    Answer: B. Pair her with other team members on gateway work so more people build the skill over time.

    A single specialist is both a bottleneck and a key-person risk. Pairing spreads the skill across the team, building T-shaped members and cutting waits now and during her leave. Front-loading payment stories ignores value order and leaves the risk in place, a contractor adds cost without building team capability, and documentation alone rarely transfers hands-on skill.

  7. Question 101

    Your agile team has just finished three demanding sprints and met every sprint goal, yet morale is visibly low. Two members say their extra effort goes unnoticed, and there is no budget for bonuses. What is the BEST action?

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    Answer: D. Recognize specific contributions promptly and share them with the sponsor and managers.

    Recognition works best when it is timely, specific and visible, and it needs no budget. Naming contributions now and sharing them with leaders addresses the concern directly. Waiting until release lets morale fall further, management reserve is for unidentified project risks rather than rewards, and calling the effort normal confirms the feeling of being unnoticed.

Integration Management: 6 free questions

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  1. Question 102

    You have just been named project manager for a new digital-banking initiative. Executives are eager to start, and two vendors are ready to sign. No project charter exists yet. What should you do FIRST?

    Choose an answer for question 102

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B. Work with the sponsor to develop the charter and get it formally authorized.

    The project charter formally authorizes the project and gives the project manager authority to use organizational resources. Without it, you cannot properly commit funds or sign contracts. The sponsor issues the charter. Detailed planning and a kickoff come after authorization.

  2. Question 103

    The customer has formally accepted the final deliverable of your predictive project, and all contracts are closed. Which activity should the project manager complete as part of closing?

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    Answer: A. Finalize lessons learned, archive records and release the resources.

    Closing includes finalizing lessons learned, archiving project records into organizational process assets, and releasing team members and other resources. Warranty support is operational work, a new phase needs its own authorization, and baselines are not updated once the project is complete.

  3. Question 104

    Halfway through a project, a competitor launches a similar product, and marketing now forecasts 40% lower revenue than the business case assumed. The project is on schedule and on budget. What should the project manager do?

    Choose an answer for question 104

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    Answer: C. Bring the change in expected benefits to the sponsor so governance can reassess the project.

    Projects exist to deliver business value. When the business case changes, the project manager raises it with the sponsor so governance can decide whether to continue, change or stop. Being on schedule and budget does not mean the project is still worth doing, and cutting scope on your own goes beyond your authority.

  4. Question 105

    One part of a new initiative must meet fixed regulatory reporting rules by a set date, while its customer-facing app needs frequent user feedback because user needs are still unclear. The PMO asks you to recommend a development approach. What should you recommend?

    Choose an answer for question 105

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    Answer: C. A hybrid approach that tailors each part's delivery to its constraints and uncertainty.

    Tailoring selects the delivery approach that fits each part of the work. Fixed regulatory requirements suit predictive control, while an app with unclear user needs benefits from adaptive delivery, so a hybrid approach serves both. Forcing one approach on everything ignores one part's needs, and a standard approach chosen only for consistency ignores fit altogether.

  5. Question 106

    The customer has signed acceptance of your new warehouse management system, and closure is planned for Friday. Operations now says it cannot take over support because none of its staff have been trained on the system. What should you do?

    Choose an answer for question 106

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    Answer: C. Agree a time-bound transition plan with operations, including training, before closing.

    Benefits are realized only when the organization can use and sustain what the project delivered, so transition to operations is part of closing. A time-bound plan with training and a clear handover date protects the benefits without leaving the project open-ended. Closing anyway risks the system failing in use, open-ended support turns the project into operations, and a directive from the sponsor does not create the missing skills.

  6. Question 107

    Three months after launch, the product's key benefit metric, the online self-service rate, is still at 18%, although every planned feature shipped on time. The sponsor asks for your view at the quarterly business review. What should you recommend?

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    Answer: A. Investigate why the metric has not moved and adapt the roadmap based on what is learned.

    Outputs delivered on time are not the same as outcomes. When the benefit metric does not move, the team should find out why, through user research, analytics or small experiments, and adapt the roadmap. Declaring success ignores the business case, adding features assumes more output will fix an outcome problem, and changing the metric hides the gap instead of closing it.

Earned Value (EVM): 13 free questions

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  1. Question 108

    A project has a budget at completion (BAC) of $200,000. It was planned to be 50% complete today but is 40% complete, and the actual cost (AC) to date is $95,000. Which statement describes the project's status?

    Choose an answer for question 108

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    Answer: D. Over budget and behind schedule

    EV = 40% × $200,000 = $80,000. PV = 50% × $200,000 = $100,000. CPI = EV ÷ AC = 80,000 ÷ 95,000 = 0.84, which is below 1, so the project is over budget. SPI = EV ÷ PV = 80,000 ÷ 100,000 = 0.80, which is below 1, so it is behind schedule. CV is −$15,000 and SV is −$20,000.

  2. Question 109

    Using the same project (BAC $200,000, EV $80,000, AC $95,000), the team expects the current cost performance to continue for the rest of the work. What is the estimate at completion (EAC)?

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    Answer: C. $237,500

    If current cost performance continues, EAC = BAC ÷ CPI = $200,000 ÷ (80,000 ÷ 95,000) = $237,500. $215,000 is AC + (BAC − EV), which assumes the remaining work will be done at the budgeted rate (an atypical variance). $250,000 divides by SPI instead of CPI, and $168,421 multiplies BAC by CPI.

  3. Question 110

    The sponsor insists that the project still finishes within the original $200,000 budget. With EV of $80,000 and AC of $95,000, what is the to-complete performance index (TCPI), and what does it mean?

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    Answer: B. 1.14: every remaining dollar must produce $1.14 of planned work.

    TCPI based on BAC = (BAC − EV) ÷ (BAC − AC) = (200,000 − 80,000) ÷ (200,000 − 95,000) = 120,000 ÷ 105,000 = 1.14. The team must deliver $1.14 of work for every remaining dollar, which is much better than the current CPI of 0.84. A large gap like this suggests the BAC target may not be realistic.

  4. Question 111

    A project reports PV = $50,000, EV = $55,000 and AC = $60,000 at the end of month four. What are the cost variance (CV) and schedule variance (SV)?

    Choose an answer for question 111

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    Answer: B. CV = −$5,000 and SV = +$5,000

    CV = EV − AC = $55,000 − $60,000 = −$5,000, so the work done so far cost more than its budgeted value. SV = EV − PV = $55,000 − $50,000 = +$5,000, so more work is complete than planned. The project is over budget but ahead of schedule. Mixing up the order of the terms flips the signs, which is the trap in the first option.

  5. Question 112

    Your forecast shows an estimate at completion (EAC) of $150,000 against a budget at completion (BAC) of $120,000. Actual cost (AC) to date is $70,000. What is the estimate to complete (ETC)?

    Choose an answer for question 112

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    Answer: C. $80,000

    ETC = EAC − AC = $150,000 − $70,000 = $80,000: the money still needed to finish. $50,000 is BAC − AC, which assumes the original budget still holds. $30,000 is the variance at completion (VAC = BAC − EAC = −$30,000) shown as a positive number, and $150,000 is the total forecast, not what remains.

  6. Question 113

    A one-time supplier penalty pushed costs up early in the project. The team expects the remaining work to be done at the budgeted rate. BAC is $400,000, EV is $150,000 and AC is $190,000. What is the most appropriate EAC?

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    Answer: B. $440,000

    When a variance is atypical and future work will run at the budgeted rate, use EAC = AC + (BAC − EV) = $190,000 + $250,000 = $440,000. $506,667 is BAC ÷ CPI, which assumes the poor cost performance continues. $400,000 ignores the overrun already incurred, and $360,000 subtracts it instead of adding it.

  7. Question 114

    Halfway through a construction project, CPI is 0.92 and SPI is 1.10. You learn the site crew has been working paid overtime to pull work forward, although the finish date has two weeks of float. What should you do FIRST?

    Choose an answer for question 114

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    Answer: A. Compare the overtime cost with the schedule benefit and review the forecast before deciding.

    The indices show a trade-off: the project is ahead of schedule because it is spending more. Before acting, the project manager analyzes whether that speed is needed given the float, and what it does to the cost forecast. Stopping overtime immediately acts without analysis, reporting only the SPI hides the cost problem, and management reserve is not meant to fund an avoidable choice.

  8. Question 115

    The sponsor has approved a revised EAC of $460,000. BAC is $400,000, EV is $200,000 and AC is $240,000. What TCPI must the team achieve to finish within the revised EAC?

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    Answer: C. 0.91

    When a revised EAC is approved, TCPI = (BAC − EV) ÷ (EAC − AC) = $200,000 ÷ $220,000 = 0.91. The team can work slightly less efficiently than planned and still meet the new target. 1.25 uses BAC instead of EAC in the denominator, the target for the original budget. 0.83 is the current CPI (EV ÷ AC).

  9. Question 116

    A project with a BAC of $80,000 has ten equal work packages. Six are complete and two more are each 50% complete; the rest have not started. What is the earned value (EV)?

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    Answer: B. $56,000

    Each work package is worth $8,000. Six complete packages earn $48,000, and two half-complete packages earn $8,000 between them, so EV = $56,000, or 70% of BAC. $48,000 ignores partial progress, and $64,000 counts the two half-done packages as finished.

  10. Question 117

    Last month's CPI was 1.10, but the cumulative CPI since the project started is 0.85. The sponsor asks for a forecast that assumes current cost performance continues. Which CPI should you use in EAC = BAC ÷ CPI?

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    Answer: D. The cumulative CPI of 0.85, because it reflects all the work completed so far.

    Forecasts such as EAC = BAC ÷ CPI use the cumulative CPI, which reflects all the work completed to date and is the more stable measure. One good month does not erase earlier overruns. Using the period CPI or an average would understate the forecast, and assuming 1.0 ignores the actual performance.

  11. Question 118

    A release has a budget of $300,000 for 150 story points across 10 planned sprints. After 4 sprints, the team has completed 54 points at an actual cost of $135,000. Assuming value is earned in proportion to completed points, what are the release CPI and SPI?

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    Answer: D. CPI 0.80 and SPI 0.90

    EV = (54 ÷ 150) × $300,000 = $108,000, and PV = (4 ÷ 10) × $300,000 = $120,000. CPI = EV ÷ AC = 108,000 ÷ 135,000 = 0.80, and SPI = EV ÷ PV = 108,000 ÷ 120,000 = 0.90, so the release is over budget and behind schedule. Swapping the two indices, or dividing in the wrong order (AC ÷ EV = 1.25, PV ÷ EV = 1.11), produces the other options.

  12. Question 119

    A project has a BAC of $500,000, PV of $250,000, EV of $200,000 and AC of $250,000. A fixed contractual finish date means schedule pressure will affect the remaining costs, so the sponsor wants a forecast that reflects both cost and schedule performance. What is the EAC?

    Choose an answer for question 119

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C. $718,750

    When both cost and schedule performance are expected to drive the remaining work, EAC = AC + (BAC − EV) ÷ (CPI × SPI). CPI = 200,000 ÷ 250,000 = 0.80 and SPI = 200,000 ÷ 250,000 = 0.80, so EAC = $250,000 + $300,000 ÷ 0.64 = $250,000 + $468,750 = $718,750. $625,000 is BAC ÷ CPI (cost performance only), $550,000 assumes budgeted rates for the remaining work, and $781,250 divides the whole BAC by 0.64.

  13. Question 120

    Your EVM report shows BAC of $500,000, EV of $300,000 and AC of $330,000, so the TCPI needed to meet the original budget is 1.18. Cumulative CPI has held at 0.91 for four months. The sponsor asks whether the original budget is still achievable. What is the MOST appropriate response?

    Choose an answer for question 120

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    Answer: B. Explain that 1.18 is far above the steady 0.91 CPI and present a $550,000 EAC with recovery options.

    TCPI = (500,000 − 300,000) ÷ (500,000 − 330,000) = 200,000 ÷ 170,000 = 1.18, far above a CPI that has held at 0.91 for months, so the original budget is unlikely to be met. The sponsor needs a realistic forecast, EAC = BAC ÷ CPI = $500,000 ÷ (300,000 ÷ 330,000) = $550,000, together with options. Treating 1.18 as close to target understates the gap, ordering a jump in efficiency is not a plan, and requesting reserve skips the options analysis.

Preparation scenarios: 2 free questions

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  1. Question 121

    A stakeholder raises a new compliance concern during a sprint. What should the project manager do first?

    Choose an answer for question 121

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B. Assess the concern and its impact with the appropriate team members.

    Assess the concern and its impact with the appropriate team members before choosing a response. Implementing a solution or escalating before understanding the issue skips analysis. Deferring it without assessment may leave a compliance risk unaddressed.

  2. Question 122

    A team repeatedly misses commitments because urgent operational work interrupts the sprint. What should the project manager do next?

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    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C. Review interruptions and adapt capacity planning with the team and product owner.

    Make the interruption pattern visible, work with the team and product owner to understand capacity, and adapt planning. Blaming individuals or increasing commitments does not address the system constraint. Waiting until the release ends allows the same planning problem to continue.

Decision scenarios: 4 free questions

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  1. Question 123

    A sponsor asks a predictive project team to add a feature. Nobody has assessed its effect on the baseline. What should the project manager do first?

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    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A. Assess the impact and use the agreed change-control process.

    The sponsor's request does not by itself complete change control. Assess the impact and follow the agreed process before implementation. Building immediately or hiding the change bypasses governance; rejecting it without assessment ignores a potentially useful change. What could change it: If the change is already approved, implement it and update the relevant records rather than repeating approval analysis.

  2. Question 124

    An agile team cannot access a test environment owned by another department. What should the project manager do next?

    Choose an answer for question 124

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: D. Resolve the dependency with the team and the environment owner.

    Help remove the blocker while preserving the team's ownership of how it organizes work. Taking over task assignments does not resolve the dependency, waiting leaves it unmanaged, and removing testing creates quality risk. What could change it: If resolution exceeds your authority or an agreed threshold is reached, use the established escalation route rather than waiting indefinitely.

  3. Question 125

    A supplier reports that a delivery will be late. The risk register contains an approved contingency response and a named owner for this event. What should the project manager do next?

    Choose an answer for question 125

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: B. Validate the contingency with its owner, implement it, and track the issue.

    The event has occurred, so coordinate the suitable contingency response and track the issue and its effects. A new workshop delays an already planned response, treating it only as a future risk misses the immediate issue, and replacing the supplier skips the agreed assessment. What could change it: A changed impact or an invalid contingency requires reassessment and the appropriate authority; do not apply an obsolete plan mechanically.

  4. Question 126

    Work exposes people to an immediate safety hazard. What should the project manager do first?

    Choose an answer for question 126

    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C. Apply the safety procedure and escalate the immediate hazard.

    An immediate hazard requires the applicable protective response and escalation responsibilities. Routine analysis, waiting for a meeting, or finishing the task first can leave people exposed. An 'always analyze first' shortcut must not override an urgent protective response. What could change it: Without an immediate threat, a proposal for future work may instead call for impact analysis and the normal governance process.

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